video pelajar tingkatan 3 video pelajar tingkatan 3 telegram fpn
													Film | 
													
														2025-10-14 10:05:30
													
												
											The theorem that $\binom {n} {k} = \frac {n!} {k! (n-k)!}$ already assumes $0!$ is defined to be $1$. Otherwise this would be restricted to $0